The UPSC Prelims 2025 question paper continued its legacy of being unpredictable, analytical, and concept-driven. With 100 questions in General Studies Paper I, the trend clearly reflected a balanced distribution across subjects like Polity, Economy, Environment, Science & Tech, History, and Geography. Among them, Polity & Governance stood out with a total of 11 questions, constituting a significant portion and demanding focused preparation.
UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper Overall Nature
This year, the paper appeared moderately tougher compared to the previous year. Questions across all subjects ranged from easy to medium and difficult levels, indicating a layered testing approach. The hallmark of this year's paper was its emphasis on core fundamentals, often intertwined with current affairs, reinforcing the need for integrated preparation.
UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 : Breakdown of the 100 questions asked Paper
UPSC Prelims Polity Section: Key Observations
The Polity section tested in-depth understanding of constitutional provisions and legal mechanisms. Unlike 2024, there was a noticeable absence of political philosophy or Preamble-based questions. Instead, the focus shifted to conceptual and factual clarity on core governance mechanisms.
Notable Themes Covered:
- Anti-defection Law: Tested nuances under the Tenth Schedule, emphasizing judicial interpretation.
- Pardoning Powers of the President: Demanded clarity on Articles 72 and 161.
- Ordinance-making Power: Required a fine grasp of Article 123 and checks on executive overreach.
These questions required more than just surface-level knowledge. Candidates were expected to comprehend interlinkages, constitutional safeguards, and recent case laws or debates in the public domain.
UPSC Prelims Governance Section: Key Observations
The Governance part focused on institutions and ministries playing pivotal roles in the economic and regulatory framework of India. The trend indicates a shift from general governance theories to specific institutional mandates and administrative mechanisms.
Notable Themes Covered:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED) and Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): Candidates had to understand their legal basis and operational scope
- National Automotive Board: Tested awareness of sector-specific policy implementation bodies.
Such questions signify UPSC’s intent to assess whether aspirants can connect theory with contemporary governance structures.
The Detailed Analysis of UPSC Prelims 2025 Polity & Governance Section are as follows:
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q. Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation
Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
- This statement is not entirely consistent with the constitutional framework. Article 243B of the Constitution of India, inserted through the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj—comprising the village, intermediate, and district levels. However, the provision includes a clear exception: States with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs (2 million) are not obligated to establish Panchayats at the intermediate level. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
- This statement misstates the constitutional age requirement. As per Article 243F(1)(a) of the Constitution, a person shall not be disqualified from being chosen as a member of a Panchayat if they have attained the age of twenty-one years. There is no constitutional requirement stipulating the age of thirty for eligibility. Therefore, the minimum age for becoming a member at any level of the Panchayati Raj system, including the intermediate level, is 21 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Statement III: "The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties."
- This statement inaccurately attributes the authority for setting up the State Finance Commission. Article 243-I of the Constitution mandates the Governor of a State—not the Chief Minister—to constitute a Finance Commission at the end of every five years (or earlier if deemed necessary). The commission is tasked with reviewing the financial position of the Panchayats at all levels and recommending the distribution of the State's financial resources accordingly. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: To test clarity on constitutional provisions of Panchayati Raj amid growing discourse on decentralization, grassroots governance, and fiscal federalism in India.
Sources:
- https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-seventy-third-amendment-act-1992
- https://www.panchayat.gov.in/
- https://fincomindia.nic.in/archive/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=16&Section=1
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the three-tier Panchayat system:
1. It is mandatory for states with a population of 20 lakh or more at all three levels.
2. States with populations below 20 lakh can opt out of the intermediate level. Each tier focuses on local governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q. 73rd constitutional amendment act has identified separately the compulsory and voluntary provisions under part IX of the constitution. Which of the following is/are of compulsory provisions?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q.Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation
I.The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- Although the pardoning power conferred upon the President under Article 72 of the Constitution is an executive function, it is not beyond the reach of judicial scrutiny. The Supreme Court, in landmark rulings such as Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh (2006), has made it clear that this power is not absolute. Judicial review is permissible if it is alleged that the decision was taken arbitrarily, in bad faith, without proper application of mind, or influenced by irrelevant or extraneous considerations. However, such review is limited to assessing the legality and constitutionality of the decision-making process; the judiciary does not evaluate the merits of the decision itself or substitute its judgment for that of the President. Hence statement I is correct.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
- Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution, the President is constitutionally bound to act in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister. The pardoning power under Article 72 is no exception, as it is an executive function exercised on behalf of the Union Government. In practice, the Ministry of Home Affairs processes mercy petitions and forwards its recommendations to the President. Therefore, the President does not exercise this power independently but acts on the advice of the Central Government, in conformity with constitutional provisions. Hence statement II is not correct.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: Former U.S. President Joe Biden recently made history by becoming the first American president to pardon his own son, sparking widespread debate over the use of presidential clemency powers. The news has been widely covered in Indian media outlets.
Sources:
- https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/constitution-india-full-text
- https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1744675/
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The President can exercise his pardoning powers on advice of the union cabinet.
2. Exercise of pardoning power by the President is subject to judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q. Which of the following statements is not correct about the pardoning power of the President?
(a) He acts on his discretion while exercising this power.
(b) His decision is subject to the Judicial review.
(c) The petitioner for mercy has no right to an oral hearing.
(d) He is not bound to give reasons for his order.
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation
Row I: Directorate of Enforcement
- The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, as per the Ministry of Finance. It operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence row I is not correctly matched.
Row II: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
- The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, and over fifty other allied Acts, including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, and Antiquities and Art Treasures Act. It functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Hence row II is correctly matched.
Row III: Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
- The Directorate General of Systems & Data Management comes under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for developing, implementing, and managing IT systems for customs, GST, and central excise to enhance efficiency, transparency, and ease of doing business. The Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM) has been set up, w.e.f. 01-07- 2018, to provide intelligence inputs and carry out big data analytics to assist the tax officers for better policy formulation and nabbing evaders. The DGARM functions under the Central Board of Indirect Tax and Customs (CBIC). Hence row III is not correctly matched.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: To test knowledge of economic governance structures and correct ministerial control amid rising focus on financial crimes and tax-tech enforcement reforms.
Sources:
- https://enforcementdirectorate.gov.in/
- https://dri.nic.in/
- https://old.icegate.gov.in/About_DG_systems.html
- https://www.referencer.in/general_information/DG_ARM.aspx
Coverage of the topic in the VisionIAS Current Affairs Sourses
- PT 365 2025 Updated Part 1: 3.10.6. DIRECTORATE OF REVENUE INTELLIGENCE (DRI)
- Monthly Current Affairs December 2024: Article 4.3. SMUGGLING IN INDIA REPORT 2023-24
- News today (09 Nov 2024): Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
VisionIAS Faculty Discussion: Polity & Governance Section Analysis of UPSC Prelims 2025
To help aspirants decode the evolving pattern and approach of UPSC Prelims 2025, our expert faculty at VisionIAS has conducted a detailed analysis session, focusing on the trends, difficulty level, question framing, and effective strategies for future preparation. This video not only breaks down the Polity & Governance questions but also offers valuable insights on elimination techniques, source mapping, and topic prioritization for UPSC Prelims 2026.
To watch the CSE Prelims 2025 Analysis Video, click on the following link:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NHaMxc-Mb0U
Prepare Smarter with VisionIAS: 10-Year PYQ Polity & Governance Compilation
To help aspirants systematically decode trends, VisionIAS has released a comprehensive compilation of last 10 years’ Polity & Governance PYQs (2015–2024). This document offers:
- Topic-wise categorization
- Difficulty level analysis
- Source identification
- Elimination strategies
- Micro-level sub-topic mapping
- Current affairs integration guide
Link to read and download the document: https://www.visionias.in/resources/material/?id=1367&type=research_document
Further, our faculty at VisionIAS has conducted an insightful discussion on the Polity & Governance PYQ Trend Analysis Document. This session covers key patterns, conceptual depth of questions, and strategies to tackle future Prelims papers more effectively. The discussion also highlights how our 10-year PYQ document can be used as a powerful tool for focused preparation.
To watch the discussion by our faculty, click on the link below: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V6-hJNZyR18
UPSC Prelims 2025 FAQ
Q. What will be upsc prelims result date 2025 ?
Ans : The remain update with upsc result you can refer to this blog article UPSC CSE Prelims Result 2025 Out ? Expected Date, Download PDF & What to Do Next . Whenever the result will be out, you can download the result from the button given in the blog article or you can visit upsc official site upsc.gov.in. to download UPSC CSE prelims result 2025 pdf .
Q. Who are the top 3 rank holders in UPSC 2024 results, and is any of them a VisionIAS student?
Ans. In the UPSC Final Result 2024, Shakti Dubey secured All India Rank (AIR) 1, followed by Harshita Goyal at Rank 2 and Dongre Archit Parag at Rank 3. Among them Harshita Goyal and Achit Parag were part of VisionIAS Foundation course during their UPSC preparation journey.