The UPSC Prelims 2025 question paper continued its legacy of being unpredictable, analytical, and concept-driven. With 100 questions in General Studies Paper I, the trend clearly reflected a balanced distribution across subjects like Polity, Economy, Environment, Science & Tech, History, and Geography. Among them, Polity & Governance stood out with a total of 11 questions, constituting a significant portion and demanding focused preparation.
UPSC Prelims 2025 Overall Nature
This year, the paper appeared moderately tougher compared to the previous year. Questions across all subjects ranged from easy to medium and difficult levels, indicating a layered testing approach. The hallmark of this year's paper was its emphasis on core fundamentals, often intertwined with current affairs, reinforcing the need for integrated preparation.
CSE Prelims 2025: Detailed Breakdown of the 100 Questions Asked
UPSC Prelims Polity Section: Key Observations
The Polity section tested in-depth understanding of constitutional provisions and legal mechanisms. Unlike 2024, there was a noticeable absence of political philosophy or Preamble-based questions. Instead, the focus shifted to conceptual and factual clarity on core governance mechanisms.
Notable Themes Covered:
- Anti-defection Law: Tested nuances under the Tenth Schedule, emphasizing judicial interpretation.
- Pardoning Powers of the President: Demanded clarity on Articles 72 and 161.
- Ordinance-making Power: Required a fine grasp of Article 123 and checks on executive overreach.
These questions required more than just surface-level knowledge. Candidates were expected to comprehend interlinkages, constitutional safeguards, and recent case laws or debates in the public domain.
UPSC Prelims Governance Section: Key Observations
The Governance part focused on institutions and ministries playing pivotal roles in the economic and regulatory framework of India. The trend indicates a shift from general governance theories to specific institutional mandates and administrative mechanisms.
Notable Themes Covered:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED) and Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): Candidates had to understand their legal basis and operational scope
- National Automotive Board: Tested awareness of sector-specific policy implementation bodies.
Such questions signify UPSC’s intent to assess whether aspirants can connect theory with contemporary governance structures.
UPSC Prelims 2025 Detailed Analysis for Polity & Governance Section :
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation
I .Upon the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker does not vacate their office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House of the People.
- This statement aligns with the second proviso to Article 94 of the Constitution of India. It ensures continuity in the functioning of the Speaker's office even after the Lok Sabha has been dissolved. The Speaker remains in office and continues to discharge their duties until just before the new Lok Sabha holds its first session, typically presided over by a Speaker protem until a new Speaker is elected. Hence statement I is correct.
II. The Constitution of India requires a Member of the House of the People, upon being elected as Speaker, to resign from their political party.
- The Constitution imposes no such requirement. While the office of the Speaker is expected to function with neutrality and impartiality—drawing from the conventions of the Westminster parliamentary system—there is no constitutional or legal mandate that requires resignation from the political party. In fact, the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) expressly exempts the Speaker (as well as the Deputy Speaker and Deputy Chairman) from disqualification in the event they voluntarily give up membership of their political party after assuming office. This provision enables them to act impartially, but resignation remains a matter of convention rather than compulsion. Hence statement II is not correct.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, provided a minimum of fourteen days' notice has been given before moving such a resolution.
- This statement accurately reflects the procedure under Article 94(c) of the Constitution. The Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority—i.e., a majority of the total current membership of the Lok Sabha (excluding vacancies). Additionally, a procedural safeguard is built into the process: no such resolution can be brought forward unless at least 14 days' prior notice has been given, allowing for adequate deliberation. Hence statement III is correct.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: Question was asked due to 2024 Lok Sabha elections and constitutional provisions on Speaker’s tenure.
Sources:
- https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/constitution-india-full-text
- https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Tenth_Schedule.pdf
- https://speakerloksabha.nic.in/
Coverage of the topic in the VisionIAS Current Affairs Sources
- PT 365 2025 Polity: Article 2.2. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. Which of the following statements is correct about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) He can be removed by a resolution passed by the effective majority of all the members of the Parliament.
(b) He resigns by writing to the President of India.
(c) When a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the house, he cannot take part in the proceedings of the house.
(d) Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly elected Lok Sabha meets.
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q. Which reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation
- An Ordinance issued under Article 123 (by the President) or Article 213 (by the Governor) has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament or State Legislature. It can amend or repeal existing laws, subject to constitutional limits and legislative competence. Hence, statement I is correct.
- Ordinances are "law" under Article 13 and must conform to the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III. Since Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making laws that infringe Fundamental Rights, an Ordinance cannot violate them. Hence, statement II is not correct.
- Legislative power, whether through an Act or an Ordinance, generally includes the power of retrospective legislation—except in the case of criminal laws, where Article 20(1) prohibits retrospective penalties. The Supreme Court has affirmed that the Ordinance-making power is co-extensive with legislative power. Hence, statement III is correct.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: In recent years, frequent power tussles between the elected Delhi government and the Lieutenant Governor led to significant constitutional debates. After the Supreme Court ruled in favor of Delhi’s control over services, the Central Government issued an ordinance (and later a law) limiting that power, raising concerns about federalism, separation of powers, and the misuse of ordinance-making authority.
Sources:
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
VisionIAS All India Prelims Test Series (2025): Test 4702
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the ordinance-making power of the President:
1. It cannot be issued retrospectively.
2. It cannot alter or amend a tax law.
3. It cannot be issued to amend the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. An ordinance issued by the President of India:
1. Cannot contravene Fundamental Rights any more than an act of Parliament
2. Can repeal an act of the Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the constitution
3. Can have a maximum life of six months in case of non-approval by the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q.Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation
- Ita Fort in Itanagar town, is one of the most important historical sites in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, India. The name literally means “Fort of bricks”( brick being called “Ita” in the Assamese language). It also lends its name to the city Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh has two national parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- The state of Nagaland came into existence with the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 . However, at the same time the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 was introduced to introduce Article 371 A which grants special status to Nagaland, protecting its unique religious, social, customary, and land-related practices from interference by the Indian Parliament without the state's Legislative Assembly's consent. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- The Royal history of Tripura ended when it acceded to the Indian Union on October 15, 1949. The regent signed the merger agreement with India, making Tripura a Part ‘C’ State. In November 1956, during state reorganization, Tripura became a Union Territory with an Advisory Committee for the Chief Commissioner. The Tripura Territorial Council was dissolved on July 1, 1963, and a Legislative Assembly was formed with existing members. Tripura became a full-fledged State on January 21, 1972, through the North Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: To test awareness of Northeast’s political evolution, historical facts, and constitutional processes amid increasing national focus on Northeastern integration and development.
Sources:
- http://nic.in/touristplace/ita-fort/
- https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-thirteenth-amendment-act-1962
- https://thc.tripura.gov.in/history.html
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
VisionIAS All India Prelims Test Series (2025): Test 4709
Q. Consider the following events related to the reorganisation of the states:
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was converted into a Union Territory of India.
2. Arunachal Pradesh became a full fledged state.
3. The State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana.
4. The state of Nagaland was formed.
Arrange the above events in a chronological order, starting from the earliest.
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 4-2-3-1
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 4-1-2-3
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. Arrange the following states based on their formation in chronological order :
1. Nagaland
2. Tripura
3. Mizoram
4. Sikkim
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 1-2-3-4
UPSC Prelims Polity & Governance Q.Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both 1 and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation
- Article 163(1) of the Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Constitution requires the Governor to act at their discretion. Article 163(2) further states that if any question arises as to whether a matter falls within the Governor’s discretionary powers, the Governor’s decision is final. Hence, the Constitution does explicitly recognize and provide for the Governor’s discretionary powers. Hence statement I is correct.
- Under Article 200 of the Constitution, the Governor has the authority to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. However, the Constitution does not empower the President to independently (suo motu) take up a State bill unless it has first been reserved and forwarded by the Governor. Hence statement II is not correct.
MOTIVATION, SOURCES AND COVERAGE OF PRELIMS QUESTION IN THE VISIONIAS SOURCES
Motivation: Governor's Discretion in News (2024–25)- Tamil Nadu: Governor R.N. Ravi's delay in assenting to bills passed by the Assembly and his public remarks on state policies sparked a constitutional debate on the limits of Governor discretion.
Sources:
- https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/constitution-india-full-text
Coverage of Topic in the VisionIAS All India Test Series/ Sandhan/Open Test
Sandhan VisionIAS Prelims Test Series Initiative
Q. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Governor’s discretionary powers under Article 163?
1. Any question regarding whether a matter falls within the Governor’s discretion is decided by the Governor.
2. The Constitution explicitly enumerates all discretionary powers of the Governor in a comprehensive list.
3. The Governor may recommend President’s Rule in exceptional circumstances.
4. The Governor can reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration if it is deemed to conflict with constitutional principles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The remaining Polity & Governance questions from UPSC Prelims 2025 are discussed in - Part 2 of the series.
VisionIAS Faculty Discussion: Polity & Governance Section Analysis of UPSC Prelims 2025
To help aspirants decode the evolving pattern and approach of UPSC Prelims 2025, our expert faculty at VisionIAS has conducted a detailed analysis session, focusing on the trends, difficulty level, question framing, and effective strategies for future preparation. This video not only breaks down the Polity & Governance questions but also offers valuable insights on elimination techniques, source mapping, and topic prioritization for UPSC Prelims 2026.
To watch the CSE Prelims 2025 Analysis Video, click on the following link:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NHaMxc-Mb0U
Prepare Smarter with VisionIAS: 10-Year PYQ Polity & Governance Compilation
To help aspirants systematically decode trends, VisionIAS has released a comprehensive compilation of last 10 years’ Polity & Governance PYQs (2015–2024). This document offers:
- Topic-wise categorization
- Difficulty level analysis
- Source identification
- Elimination strategies
- Micro-level sub-topic mapping
- Current affairs integration guide
Link to read and download the document: https://www.visionias.in/resources/material/?id=1367&type=research_document
Further, our faculty at VisionIAS has conducted an insightful discussion on the Polity & Governance PYQ Trend Analysis Document. This session covers key patterns, conceptual depth of questions, and strategies to tackle future Prelims papers more effectively. The discussion also highlights how our 10-year PYQ document can be used as a powerful tool for focused preparation.
To watch the discussion by our faculty, click on the link below: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V6-hJNZyR18
UPSC Prelims 2025 FAQ
Q. What will be upsc prelims result date 2025 ?
Ans : The remain update with upsc result you can refer to this blog article UPSC CSE Prelims Result 2025 Out ? Expected Date, Download PDF & What to Do Next . Whenever the result will be out, you can download the result from the button given in the blog article or you can visit upsc official site upsc.gov.in. to download UPSC CSE prelims result 2025 pdf .
Q. Who are the top 3 rank holders in UPSC 2024 results, and is any of them a VisionIAS student?
Ans. In the UPSC Final Result 2024, Shakti Dubey secured All India Rank (AIR) 1, followed by Harshita Goyal at Rank 2 and Dongre Archit Parag at Rank 3. Among them Harshita Goyal and Achit Parag were part of VisionIAS Foundation course during their UPSC preparation journey.